Originally Posted by
Njorun
Yes the data is clear. Immigrants are overrepresented and thus are part of this increase. This is logical and is supported by maths. What is illogical is to say they have nothing to do with it when the data shows they're overrepresented. Do you have any data where they are not?
It's the wrong point of view. The proportion of immigrants who offend may be higher, but it's still a tiny minority, and given that these immigrants don't make up a significant segment of the population to begin with, it doesn't actually have that much effect on the overall crime rate. Other factors are driving the changes.
Let's go straight to BRA again, shall we?
http://www.government.se/articles/20...ime-in-sweden/
Nonetheless, research shows that there is no evidence to indicate that immigration leads to increased crime. Despite the fact that the number of immigrants in Sweden has increased since the 1990s, exposure to violent crimes has declined.
Among other excerpts I could cite.
You're inventing a fantasy that the data does not support.