Look at all the trash sites echoing this story
https://www.google.com/search?q=Rama...orgia&start=70
Not a single legit site, something is off.
Look at all the trash sites echoing this story
https://www.google.com/search?q=Rama...orgia&start=70
Not a single legit site, something is off.
.
"This will be a fight against overwhelming odds from which survival cannot be expected. We will do what damage we can."
-- Capt. Copeland
That guy looks guilty to me. The judge probably had the same feeling and he has better intuition to identify criminals than the jury that's for sure.
I mean I couldn't honestly tell you. From what others have posted it sounds like he's given lighter sentences to non-minority groups. All I can say that I've read is that he seems to dish out proportionally harsher punishments. I would assume that means they have records of non-minorities getting less harsh punishments but that could also be skewed because the one white dude he sentenced did something like get in a domestic fight with his friend over the last beer or something stupid.
So you have no proof, you just parrot what other posters said?
Ok,
If the story is real the judge should take a long vacation and the guy released but I really feel like parts of the story are missing here.
The guy pleaded guilty to a crime he did commit (which would mean he fucked with his parole) and him going to jail for it is correct.
The title is nothing but race baiting, nothing is proven that this has ANYTHING to do with the color of his skin.
Whole story seems fishy to me.
That being said, I am not an expert on American Law, so what do I know.
Reminds me one joke:
Inmate 1: Dude, how much you got?
Inmate 2: 12 years.
Inmate 1: For?
Inmate 2: Racist speech.
Inmate 1: Woot? 12 years for racist speech?
Inmate 2: Yeah, I was supposed to get 25 but judge took under consideration it wasn't me.
Breaking and entering a home is a more serous crime than just stealing the TV. Even if he had not taken anything. Such a situation can lead to deadly results if someone is in the home at the time.Originally Posted by Ivanstone;45864941 [B
The Future is now.And they certainly don't an interstellar future for humanity!
Well he didn't plead "guilty-guilty" he pleaded "guilty" in an Alford Plea meaning which is an admission of guilt by an innocent person who knows that by pleading guilty their sentence would be reduced. Basically, he thought that he was going to get screwed by this judge one way or another and his lawyer advised him to taking this plea for a less severe sentence. Pleading not guilty and then being found guilty could have royally screwed him while an Alford plea allows him to plea guilty but still have a trial.
So like... it's a guilty plea from an innocent man trying to reduce his possible sentence should he be tried and convicted. It comes from a trial where, had the man pleaded not guilty and convicted, the death penalty was a real threat. His lawyer advised him to plead guilty so save his life but he was later pissed about it saying that he only pleaded guilty because he was told to or he'd die.
An expert opinion on this:
In layman's terms, the court could not find that Chatman actually committed the crime he was accused of, but there was sufficient evidence to show that what he did do violated the terms of his parole.Niedrach didn't overturn or vacate an aquittal.
From what I could find, Ramad Chatman was on probation at the time of the armed robbery in which he was implicated. Chatman initially tried to enter an Alford plea -- pleading guilty while maintaining innocence -- on a reduced charge, but the Court refused the plea deal.
At trial on the armed robbery charge, Chatman was acquitted. An acquittal means only that the high burden of proof -- beyond reasonable doubt -- was not satisfied. It doesn't mean the accused did not commit the crime. As such the Judge was within his power to use the fact he was brought to trial at all, meaning the burden of probable cause was at least satisfied, as evidence of a probation violation.
Proving a probation violation requires only a preponderance of the evidence standard, higher than probable cause, and you are not entitled to a jury trial on that either. As such he was found to have violated his probation. Again the judge did not vacate his acquittal since the judge has no power to do so -- see US v. Ball, 163 US 662 (1896). But the evidence in the trial may still be used against him to support other charges, such as a probation violation.
Last edited by Raelbo; 2017-05-25 at 01:15 PM.