If the budget is projected to cause a $500 deficit in a year due to carryover of programs and the president intervenes to eliminate some of that spending to reduce the deficit to $250, why can that president not take credit for that?
I'm still not understanding. (And I'm not trying to be dense...I'm just not following your logic).
To me this is like saying you should put all welfare spending under FDR regardless of any changes made to the program since then.