Mega-Thread: Trump Focused Discussion

[Jermain]

It isn't sarcasm. There is no one that has ever voted 6 weeks after election day. Not a single person has even a day after the election.

Ballot curing.

And no, the state electors aren't selected til December. And they have official documents with state seals and everything. Not like the fake electors in 2020. They are literally all being charged for faking federal documents.

Selected is not submitted. You are confused again.

[Gigantique]

"More eligible people are able to vote now = rigged" has got to be the most pants-on-head take I've seen in a good while.

Imagine being so high on copium that's your stance.

[Edge-]

I'll note again that the conservative criticism seems to be, "People can vote." when you boil it down to the basics.

[Surfd]

One party's voters are more likely to vote in person on election day.

The other party's voters are more likely to vote by mail for 6 weeks prior to and 6 weeks after election day.

Which party is advantaged by the rules?

Neither, because under the rules, both party's voters have equal access to the vote. Regardless of how "likely" they are to use one method vs the other, both have equal access to both methods. All votes will still be counted once they have been submitted.

The only way this becomes "rigged" is if one of those methods is deliberately engineered to prevent all the people who would vote using that method from being able to do so. You know, like intentionally closing polling stations in areas predominantly populated by a particular demographic in an attempt to deliberately create a situation where lack of access to sufficient stations results in large numbers of those individuals being unable to vote on election day because polls are forced to close before they are able to process all voters. Of course, it's really weird that such occurrences pretty much only happen in states controlled by one particular party.

[Huehuecoyotl]

Support your claims with evidence.

Did anyone order a right wing sealion? Anyone? Bueller?

[Jermain]

Neither, because under the rules, both party's voters have equal access to the vote. Regardless of how "likely" they are to use one method vs the other, both have equal access to both methods. All votes will still be counted once they have been submitted.

The only way this becomes "rigged" is if one of those methods is deliberately engineered to prevent all the people who would vote using that method from being able to do so. You know, like intentionally closing polling stations in areas predominantly populated by a particular demographic in an attempt to deliberately create a situation where lack of access to sufficient stations results in large numbers of those individuals being unable to vote on election day because polls are forced to close before they are able to process all voters. Of course, it's really weird that such occurrences pretty much only happen in states controlled by one particular party.

If a minority group was more likely than others to vote on election day, could I easily dilute their voting power by expanding mail voting six weeks before and after election day?

[postman1782]

Ballot curing.



Selected is not submitted. You are confused again.

That isn't voting after the election, that is confirming your vote. Nothing more nothing less. And wrong, The electors are selected and submitted by December 14th.

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If a minority group was more likely than others to vote on election day, could I easily dilute their voting power by expanding mail voting six weeks before and after election day?

No. Because that isn't diluting any vote.

[Jermain]

That isn't voting after the election, that is confirming your vote. Nothing more nothing less. And wrong, The electors are selected and submitted by December 14th.

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No. Because that isn't diluting any vote.

The submission date is what you have, not the selection date.

I like the time machine you've invented to deliver cured ballots back to the past, McFly.

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Neither, because under the rules, both party's voters have equal access to the vote. Regardless of how "likely" they are to use one method vs the other, both have equal access to both methods. All votes will still be counted once they have been submitted.

The only way this becomes "rigged" is if one of those methods is deliberately engineered to prevent all the people who would vote using that method from being able to do so. You know, like intentionally closing polling stations in areas predominantly populated by a particular demographic in an attempt to deliberately create a situation where lack of access to sufficient stations results in large numbers of those individuals being unable to vote on election day because polls are forced to close before they are able to process all voters. Of course, it's really weird that such occurrences pretty much only happen in states controlled by one particular party.

I like this post but think there are other ways to rig it.

[gondrin]

Nonjusticiability does not mean it was not rigged.

Nothing was rigged. The fact that NOBODY can show actual evidence of any ballots, in mass, being purposefully flipped, electronically or otherwise manipulated without the voter themselves knowing about it, the fact that NOBODY can show actual evidence of any ballots being added to any site, the fact that NOBODY can show any evidence of MASS voter fraud committed by a large number of people means that there is absolutely ZERO evidence of anything being rigged.

If ANYONE can show actual evidence of the election, at large, was rigged, show it. It has been nearly 3 years since the election. Where's the beef?

Yes, there was an extremely small number of voter fraud happening. There is always a few people that will try and vote twice or some nonsense like that. We even have proof of that in the form of few people voting twice FOR TRUMP and admitting to it trying to state it is proof someone could do it.

[Jermain]

Nothing was rigged. The fact that NOBODY can show actual evidence of any ballots, in mass, being purposefully flipped, electronically or otherwise manipulated without the voter themselves knowing about it, the fact that NOBODY can show actual evidence of any ballots being added to any site, the fact that NOBODY can show any evidence of MASS voter fraud committed by a large number of people means that there is absolutely ZERO evidence of anything being rigged.

If ANYONE can show actual evidence of the election, at large, was rigged, show it. It has been nearly 3 years since the election. Where's the beef?

Yes, there was an extremely small number of voter fraud happening. There is always a few people that will try and vote twice or some nonsense like that. We even have proof of that in the form of few people voting twice FOR TRUMP and admitting to it trying to state it is proof someone could do it.

Rigged isn't fraud. Fraud is a loser angle.

[Surfd]

If a minority group was more likely than others to vote on election day, could I easily dilute their voting power by expanding mail voting six weeks before and after election day?

Only if you somehow arrange for some of those votes to not be counted once submitted. Which, you know, would be SUPER FUCKING ILLEGAL.

[Jermain]

Only if you somehow arrange for some of those votes to not be counted once submitted. Which, you know, would be SUPER FUCKING ILLEGAL.

What if you arranged for invalid votes to be counted later?

[postman1782]

The submission date is what you have, not the selection date.

I like the time machine you've invented to deliver cured ballots back to the past, McFly.

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I like this post but think there are other ways to rig it.

The election day is the first Tuesday of November, they are selected between then and December 14th and they sign their names on the official papers. Not the fake ones Trump had them sign. And cured ballots aren't votes 6 weeks after the election, there isn't a single one that is more than a week after the election happens that they are fixed.

There isn't any rigging happening, except by Republicans, and they are all being charged for it.

[Jermain]

The election day is the first Tuesday of November, they are selected between then and December 14th and they sign their names on the official papers. Not the fake ones Trump had them sign. And cured ballots aren't votes 6 weeks after the election, there isn't a single one that is more than a week after the election happens that they are fixed.

There isn't any rigging happening, except by Republicans, and they are all being charged for it.

1) Selection and submission are indeed different.

Thank you!

2) Some voting takes place after the election.

Thank you again!

[Candiman]

2) Some voting takes place after the election.

No you're just wrong. Even cured ballots were cast before the election. Just counted after it.

https://www.pbs.org/newshour/politic...a-cured-ballot

[gondrin]

Alternate electors aren't faithless electors. They're just sworn to another candidate.

See: Kennedy/Nixon Hawaii 1960

While both parties will make a slate of electors, only one slate is allowed to cast their votes. It is the slate of electors of the person who won the popular vote. Any other slate isn't a valid slate and therefore, not a valid vote for said candidate.

[Jermain]

No you're just wrong. Even cured ballots were cast before the election. Just counted after it.

https://www.pbs.org/newshour/politic...a-cured-ballot

I think that's new and it's ok if the people it disadvantages have a problem with it.

[gondrin]

One party's voters are more likely to vote in person on election day.

The other party's voters are more likely to vote by mail for 6 weeks prior to and 6 weeks after election day.

Which party is advantaged by the rules?

None. Both parties can use either means to vote. The rules apply to all voters. If one group prefers to vote in person, that is on them. They can ALSO vote by mail, vote early and the like. It is like a person complaining that they have to wait until the day before Thanksgiving before getting a turkey, and when they do, what they want runs out by the time they get theirs. No, that person could have gotten it before said date, they just CHOSE to wait. That is on them.

Also, NO VOTER CAN VOTE AFTER ANY ELECTION DAY. The votes are COUNTED after election day because of the number of votes that need to be counted along with absentee votes such as ones from the military that may not come in before election day due to the mail. This has been a thing since elections were a thing. As long as it is postmarked BEFORE the election happens, the vote still counts.

[Jermain]

While both parties will make a slate of electors, only one slate is allowed to cast their votes. It is the slate of electors of the person who won the popular vote. Any other slate isn't a valid slate and therefore, not a valid vote for said candidate.

If the invalid slate didn't vote in the college, what's the problem?

[postman1782]

1) Selection and submission are indeed different.

Thank you!

2) Some voting takes place after the election.

Thank you again!

Jesus fucking christ you are stupid.

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I think that's new and it's ok if the people it disadvantages have a problem with it.

No, this has always happened.

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If the invalid slate didn't vote in the college, what's the problem?

The problem is that in 2020, both slates did, but only 1 was legal, and had the actual state papers. Which is why the fake ones are being charged.