1. #1

    [Mathematics] Therefore 2 = 1

    In honor of the absolutely atrocious mathematics of World of Warcraft players as recently showcased in this thread here http://www.mmo-champion.com/threads/899641-6÷2(1-2), I decided to cause some more mischief and see if people can figure out how I proved 2 is equal to 1 (and where my intentional error is)

    Given: a = b:

    a^2 = ab
    a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2
    (a + b)(a - b) = b(a - b)
    (a + b) = b
    a + a = a
    2a = a
    2 = 1

    P.S. the ^ is to indicate power its raised to. 4^2 = 16 (4 squared = 16).

  2. #2
    (a - b) = 0, your step 4 is a divide by 0.

  3. #3
    The Patient
    10+ Year Old Account
    Join Date
    May 2011
    Location
    Pennsylvania
    Posts
    240
    Concur with Waniou, you're dividing by zero.

    At least you didn't use the piss poor representation of this same problem where they use .99999.... and .9999...999

  4. #4
    Deleted
    Damnit, Waniou was first
    Yeah, as Waniou said, you're not allowed to divide by zero. (I heard that there is a "number range" where that is possible (like complex numbers to real numbers (squareroot from -1)), but it is too abstract to imagine what it's like... not sure about that tho)

  5. #5
    Bloodsail Admiral Torne's Avatar
    10+ Year Old Account
    Join Date
    Nov 2009
    Location
    Germany
    Posts
    1,109
    whats with all the mathematics trolls these days?
    and yes, you are dividing by zero.
    the correct solution would be
    a^2 = ab
    -> a=b

  6. #6
    The Lightbringer jvbastel's Avatar
    10+ Year Old Account
    Join Date
    Jan 2011
    Location
    Flanders
    Posts
    3,789
    famous one, IIRC I saw one during my engineer studies that "proved" 1 = 3, by using sqrt(-1) = i, I'm not sure how it went, should have it somewhere in my old books

  7. #7
    The Patient
    10+ Year Old Account
    Join Date
    May 2011
    Location
    Pennsylvania
    Posts
    240
    Quote Originally Posted by jvbastel View Post
    famous one, IIRC I saw one during my engineer studies that "proved" 1 = 3, by using sqrt(-1) = i, I'm not sure how it went, should have it somewhere in my old books
    The i problem is where 1 = 2 using complex numbers, the fallacy usually being when they sqrt(-1/1) = sqrt(1/-1) and simplify to sqrt(-1)/sqrt(1) = sqrt(1)/sqrt(-1) except the rule they're using only applies to positive numbers, and no such rule for negatives exists.

  8. #8
    Dreadlord Art3x's Avatar
    10+ Year Old Account
    Join Date
    Oct 2009
    Location
    Somewhere
    Posts
    816
    The answer is 9!

  9. #9
    Deleted
    Technicly you can divide by zero, the answer escapes our universe -> black hole.

  10. #10
    Quote Originally Posted by Art3x View Post
    The answer is 9!
    No 1! :P hahaha

  11. #11

  12. #12
    Let x = 0.99999...
    Then 10x = 9.999999...
    Subtract the first line from the second line.
    9x = 9
    x = 1
    0.999=1

  13. #13
    The Patient
    10+ Year Old Account
    Join Date
    May 2011
    Location
    Pennsylvania
    Posts
    240
    Quote Originally Posted by Shaqur View Post
    Let x = 0.99999...
    Then 10x = 9.999999...
    Subtract the first line from the second line.
    9x = 9
    x = 1
    0.999=1
    Too easy, operators do not hold their properties on numbers that have not been defined.

  14. #14
    Quote Originally Posted by Waniou View Post
    (a - b) = 0, your step 4 is a divide by 0.

  15. #15
    Deleted
    well you can get that one easier.

    1/3=0.33333... (period 3) so technically it never ends.
    (1/3)*3=0.33333....*3
    1=0.99999...

  16. #16
    Deleted
    Quote Originally Posted by Sturmgewehr86 View Post
    nope it is 1.
    Of course it's 42... duh

  17. #17
    Deleted
    Quote Originally Posted by Robinhoodexe View Post
    Of course it's 42... duh
    No, it´s Lupus!

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •