Originally Posted by
ptwonline
DI've been looking at some polls lately and hearing conservatives complain that the polls are biased towards Obama because they oversample Democrats. So naturally the first thing I do is to see if that claim is actually true. And what do you know: the major polls seem to use--on average--about 6-8% more Democrats. So naturally they would show Obama higher in the polls, right? Especially since historically, turnout between "Democrats" and "Republicans" (various ways counted: self-identified, registered, etc) is only slightly higher for Dems.
But here's the thing: as far as I can tell they don't choose Dems or Reps, they simply poll and party identification is one of the things they ask. They don't throw out parts of the poll or re-weight it to make the Dem and Rep numbers more even, since that could be pretty much pre-determining the poll results. But then why are Dem numbers so much higher?
So is it possible that the polling is faulty and that Romney and Obama could actually be roughly tied? Er, tied in polls that is.