Originally Posted by
darkwarrior42
Care to respond to the rest of my post, or are you going to use my red herring as an excuse to ignore the rest of my post?
(I deliberately included that line to see if you would do exactly this, based on the manner in which you're posting; I am disappointed, but not surprised, that you went for it.)
Edit: Yes, this is true for my last paragraph as well, before you get there, at least to an extent; the point is valid, but could have easily been phrased in a far less provocative manner.
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Currently, courts routinely void contracts where one party is intoxicated, and the other party knew this fact and took advantage of it.
Based on your reasoning, is it safe to conclude you believe that such contracts should be enforced without exception, since the person that got drunk knew what they were doing, and is at fault for failing to take proper precautions?