Originally Posted by
Chapel
I have both, and you are incorrect in your assumption. The rich will always spend greater amounts, and thereby get taxed in greater amounts, even if they purchase less frequently. And how is your use of percentage based consuption anymore relevent than my percentage based sales tax? The non-rich will buy 1000 things for a total of $500 in taxes, where the rich will buy one item for $20,000 in taxes. Consumption taxes will always affect the rich greater since whether they are income-based or inheritence based, they will be taxed on what they spend.