Try reading posts before responding. There's revenue, but some proportion of that revenue is spent on wages, and some is taken out in profits. Changing those proportions isn't "taking the company's money", because they never had more of the revenue that's being distributed. That they might have had a higher percentage of prior revenue is irrelevant.
But the government has authority over both sides of the bargaining table, making it inherently unfair. They have the threat of force behind them, something the other side simply cannot contend with.
- - - Updated - - -
And I believe that belongs to the company, does it not?
- - - Updated - - -
The revenue belongs to the company, it's their money.
There are other factors too besides just working hard, like having the knowledge and professional background in your field.
Like with the CEO and the janitor for example.... we see in Venezuela, the President is a guy who used to be a bus driver lol. Much in the same way, the CEO has to make many hard decisions both financially and ethically that impacts the lives of all involved whereas the janitor just has to clean stuff. A good CEO can mean the difference between a company growing massively, or going out of business. There are no similarities between that and the janitor.
If a company refuses to hire anyone who is part of a union, that is their choice. They don't need the government to push legislation to make that happen.
I don't want to leave corporatist legislation in place, I find it highly beneficial to get rid of such laws. I want to get rid of as many laws as possible.
Nope, I'm not confused in the slightest.
Revenues belong to the company. They pay out their costs from those revenues, including wages. At every point, until that money is given to vendors, suppliers, employees, the government (taxes), and other expenses, that is their money.
If the revenue does not belong to the company, to whom does it belong?
- - - Updated - - -
You'll notice that I was asking a question in my previous response to the other poster.
It belongs to those they owe it to. The government, in taxes, their suppliers, for products/services rendered, their employees, in wages. This is why, if they don't pay those things, those parties can sue and have the government force the company to pay those amounts. Because those monies belong to those other parties.
Increasing the amount spent on wages is no different than increasing the amount spent on office supplies. It's a cost of doing business. It is not "taking the company's money".
It does not belong to them until they pay it. You feel like they should pay more to their employees, and you want to use the government to force them to do it. That's where the problem lies... you want to take more of the money, that by your definition actually belongs to the company since it's not alloted for employees), and give it to the employees.
Of course, you run into a slight problem, since even if a company has zero revenues, they still have financial obligations to all those other entities. Therefore, it makes no sense to assume that their revenue automatically belongs to someone else... when it could just as easily be their liquid assets. Either way you look at it, it's the company's money until they pay it out. They had voluntary agreements with everyone on what they would be paying them, and that includes vendors, suppliers, employees... etc. Yet here you are, wanting to get right in the middle of that, and give more to one of those.
- - - Updated - - -
I didn't say that at all. I'm merely saying that until the company pays that money out, it's theirs.
Again, blatantly false.
Go on; refuse to pay your employees. When they sue, go to court and use the defense "it's our money until we decide to pay it". You'll lose so fast you'll be spinning like a Looney Tunes cartoon character.
Why? Because it's their money, and you have no right to keep it from them.
But what you suggest, is that the business buy the most expensive office supplies, with no eye on quality. Why should a business just arbitrarily pay their workers above market? Why are workers suddenly unable to negotiate for higher wages, and seek new employment if they don't get them?
I keep banging this drum but you won't answer: what makes you think that employers wanting to pay the lowest wages is not a constant throughout all known history of man? Since the dawn of civilization, employers have always and will always want to pay the lowest wages. In addition, the employee will always want higher wages. The employee making himself desirable to other employers, as well as his or her own, is the means by which they achieve their wage goals. These are natural market forces, and have been constant throughout history, and will remain so forever. What about any of this, specifically, do you think is different today than it ever has been?