Wait a sec. A decision not to prosecute is the same as "clearing a person of wrong doing"? Is that what Bob Mueller did? Law enforcement either prosecutes or it doesn't, right?
Also, the usage of the term "cleared" is merely colloquial, correct? It could mean different things to different people. And any usage of the term "cleared" has to be temporary, or indefinite at best. It implies no protection from double jeopardy. To that effect, the fact that a person can be prosecuted upon discovery of new evidence for an alleged crime that they were previously "cleared" of illustrates the flimsiness of that standard. That makes sense correct?
I could accept the statement that "The DOJ "cleared" Hillary Clinton", but I'd ask for a statement from them to that effect, particularly one that uses the term "cleared". I doubt you'd find it.
I don't intend to relitigate that entire discussion, I just wanted to point out that my interpretation of the Espionage Act, (that it doesn't require the information in question to be classified) is now being echoed by those on the left who want to (correctly) investigate DJT.
And thank you for your reply on my question regarding the logistics of sending a former POTUS to jail.
Edit - To be clear, I didn't mean to say that the two situations were the same. Far from it, I merely meant to say that the fact of the espionage act not regarding information to be classified was the same. That is all. Thanks.

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