Originally Posted by
MeHMeH
The problem with this line of thought is that if a woman cant consent while drunk then a man can't either. And when both are drunk that means that no one can consent.
If this where true that would mean that males could also sue for not having to pay custody as they were impaired at the moment of conception. Of course this would not include all of the pregnancies, just the ones that resulted from drunk sex with a stranger.
And to top it all off, the person they are having sex with is inebriated too, that means that he is also impaired and can has a much harder time being able to make judgment calls on if a person is drunk or not.
What you are talking about only holds true if there is a case of acting maliciously, drunken sex isn't malicious, it is drunken sex.
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I already told you that, if you need more time to wrap your brain around it then take another 10 minutes.
And no, i do not think that giving consent is the same as drunk driving, that is either your strawman or your incapability to understand the subject at hand.