I mean, if the US is already set on supplying aide to Ukraine... and is separately set on seizing Russian assets... I see no reason why one shouldn't fund the other. Really, nothing changes, except the source of the money funding Ukraine is more directly highlighted. Would the contention be, then, that it's "particularly snide in its intentions against Russia?"
In which case... good? Might as well both piss off the oligarchs AND help Ukraine defend itself in one fell swoop, inextricably tied to the other. Oligarch money will be directly stymieing Russia's efforts, and the oligarchs will be losing their property because of the continued war that their own money has now served to complicate against them.